Heart Sounds Quiz

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Test your knowledge of heart sounds.

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Wafa

Saudi Arabia

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Heart Sounds Quiz


Heart Sounds QuizVersion en ligne Test your knowledge of heart sounds. par Wafa 1 S1 is best described as the closure of which valves at the start of systole? a AV valves (mitral and tricuspid) b Semilunar valves c Atrial valves d Pulmonary valves 2 S2 corresponds to the closure of which valves at the end of systole? a Atrial valves only b Semilunar and AV valves c Aortic and pulmonary valves d Mitral and tricuspid valves 3 S3 occurs during which phase of the cardiac cycle? a Mid diastole during silent period b Early diastole during rapid ventricular filling c Early systole during isovolumetric contraction d Late diastole during atrial contraction 4 S4 is typically heard with which condition? a Severe valvular regurgitation b Stiff or hypertrophic ventricle with atrial contraction c Normal aging without disease d Rapid ventricular filling 5 Which auscultation location is best to hear aortic area murmurs? a Right fifth intercostal space midclavicular b Right second intercostal space at the sternal border c Left second intercostal space at the sternal border d Left fifth intercostal space midclavicular 6 A holosystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla suggests which diagnosis? a Ventricular septal defect without radiation b Aortic stenosis c Pulmonic stenosis d Mitral regurgitation 7 Which statement best distinguishes S3 from S4? a S3 is a sign of volume overload; S4 of stiff ventricle b S3 occurs with AV valve closures; S4 with semilunar closures c S3 and S4 are both normal in all ages d S3 is late diastole; S4 is early systole 8 In a healthy young person, which heart sound can be considered physiologic? a S3 as a normal variant in children/young adults b Persistent loud S2 c S4 in all adults d Continuous murmur throughout systole 9 Which ECG wave represents atrial depolarization? a ST segment b P wave c T wave d QRS complex 10 What does the QRS complex primarily represent? a Ventricular depolarization b Ventricular repolarization c Atrioventricular conduction d Atrial depolarization 11 Normal PR interval duration (seconds)? a 0.25–0.30 s b 0.40–0.60 s c 0.02–0.06 s d 0.12–0.20 s 12 Which interval is used to assess AV node conduction time? a ST segment b RR interval c PR interval d QT interval 13 What is the usual heart rate range for a normal ECG tracing in adults? a 40–60 bpm b 60–100 bpm c 120–180 bpm d 100–140 bpm 14 Which lead configuration is most commonly used to view a standard 12-lead ECG? a 15-lead ECG b 3-lead ECG c 12-lead ECG with limb and chest leads d 1-lead ECG 15 ST segment elevation can indicate which condition if persistent? a Pericarditis without infarct b Myocardial infarction c Pulmonary embolism (no STEMI) d Atrial fibrillation 16 Which abnormality is characterized by absent or irregular P waves with irregularly irregular rhythm? a Ventricular fibrillation b Atrial fibrillation c Sinus tachycardia d First-degree AV block 17 What is the term for a widened QRS duration (>0.12 s) indicating abnormal ventricular conduction? a Atrial flutter b Sinus arrhythmia c TIA d Bundle branch block 18 Which electrolyte or metabolic disturbance can prolong QT interval riskily? a Hypernatremia b Hypocalcemia c Hypoglycemia d Hyperkalemia 19 What does a normal P wave represent on an ECG image? a Ventricular repolarization b Ventricular depolarization c Atrial repolarization d Atrial depolarization 20 Which interval is typically measured to assess AV node conduction on an ECG image? a QT interval b QRS duration c PR interval d ST segment 21 Which feature indicates ventricular tachycardia on an ECG strip image? a Prolonged PR interval b Wide, rapid QRS complexes c Narrow QRS with normal rate d Peaked T waves 22 What does a tall, peaked T wave suggest on a ECG image? a Myocardial infarction b Hypokalemia c Atrial fibrillation d Hyperkalemia 23 Which axis deviation on a 12-lead ECG image suggests left axis deviation? a QRS negative in lead I b QRS positive in aVR c QRS in lead I positive, aVF negative d QRS positive in aVL and II 24 Which finding on an ECG image indicates a myocardial infarction? a Tall R waves in V1 b ST elevation in contiguous leads c Peaked P waves d ST depression in all leads 25 What does a prolonged QT interval on an ECG imply? a Low heart rate b Electrical alternans c Risk of torsades de pointes d Atrial flutter 26 Which rhythm is suggested by a regular, sawtooth pattern on an ECG image? a Atrial fibrillation b Sinus bradycardia c Ventricular tachycardia d Atrial flutter 27 Which lead changes help identify a lot of myocardial infarction location on an ECG image? a Reciprocal changes in multiple leads b T wave inversion in a single lead c P wave changes in II d Only Q waves in V1 28 What does a broad QRS complex (>120 ms) usually indicate on an ECG image? a Hyperkalemia b Normal conduction c Delayed ventricular conduction d Atrial enlargement 29 Which antiarrhythmic primarily blocks outward potassium current (I_Kr) to prolong repolarization? a Quinidine b Amiodarone c Procainamide d Lidocaine 30 Which inotrope increases intracellular cAMP via beta-1 receptor stimulation? a Dopamine b Dobutamine c Milrinone d Digoxin 31 Which antiarrhythmic is a sodium channel blocker with strong use-dependence (class Ib)? a Lidocaine b Flecainide c Propafenone d Quinidine 32 Which drug is a PDE3 inhibitor used as a positive inotrope with vasodilation in acute heart failure? a Dopamine b Milrinone c Epinephrine d Digoxin 33 Which calcium channel blocker is commonly used for rate control in atrial fibrillation? a Diltiazem b Nifedipine c Verapamil (non-rate-control context) d Amlodipine 34 Which antiarrhythmic is notorious for thyroid and pulmonary toxicity? a Dofetilide b Adenosine c Amiodarone d Sotalol 35 Which inotrope can cause significant arrhythmias and is used in shock states? a Isoproterenol b Dopamine c Dobutamine d Milrinone 36 Which class III antiarrhythmic is associated with QT prolongation and torsades risk? a Dronedarone b Dofetilide c Amiodarone d Sotalol 37 Which beta-blocker with antiarrhythmic properties is nonselective and used for rate control? a Esmolol b Atenolol c Propranolol d Metoprolol 38 Which antiarrhythmic is generally avoided in structural heart disease due to proarrhythmic risk? a Amiodarone b Flecainide c Propafenone d Dofetilide

Heart Sounds Quiz

Test

À propos de cette activité

Créé par

Téléchargez la version pour jouer sur papier

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Heart Sounds QuizVersion en ligne

par Wafa

S1 is best described as the closure of which valves at the start of systole?

S2 corresponds to the closure of which valves at the end of systole?

S3 occurs during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

S4 is typically heard with which condition?

Which auscultation location is best to hear aortic area murmurs?

A holosystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla suggests which diagnosis?

Which statement best distinguishes S3 from S4?

In a healthy young person, which heart sound can be considered physiologic?

Which ECG wave represents atrial depolarization?

What does the QRS complex primarily represent?

Normal PR interval duration (seconds)?

Which interval is used to assess AV node conduction time?

What is the usual heart rate range for a normal ECG tracing in adults?

Which lead configuration is most commonly used to view a standard 12-lead ECG?

ST segment elevation can indicate which condition if persistent?

Which abnormality is characterized by absent or irregular P waves with irregularly irregular rhythm?

What is the term for a widened QRS duration (>0.12 s) indicating abnormal ventricular conduction?

Which electrolyte or metabolic disturbance can prolong QT interval riskily?

What does a normal P wave represent on an ECG image?

Which interval is typically measured to assess AV node conduction on an ECG image?

Which feature indicates ventricular tachycardia on an ECG strip image?

What does a tall, peaked T wave suggest on a ECG image?

Which axis deviation on a 12-lead ECG image suggests left axis deviation?

Which finding on an ECG image indicates a myocardial infarction?

What does a prolonged QT interval on an ECG imply?

Which rhythm is suggested by a regular, sawtooth pattern on an ECG image?

Which lead changes help identify a lot of myocardial infarction location on an ECG image?

What does a broad QRS complex (>120 ms) usually indicate on an ECG image?

Which antiarrhythmic primarily blocks outward potassium current (I_Kr) to prolong repolarization?

Which inotrope increases intracellular cAMP via beta-1 receptor stimulation?

Which antiarrhythmic is a sodium channel blocker with strong use-dependence (class Ib)?

Which drug is a PDE3 inhibitor used as a positive inotrope with vasodilation in acute heart failure?

Which calcium channel blocker is commonly used for rate control in atrial fibrillation?

Which antiarrhythmic is notorious for thyroid and pulmonary toxicity?

Which inotrope can cause significant arrhythmias and is used in shock states?

Which class III antiarrhythmic is associated with QT prolongation and torsades risk?

Which beta-blocker with antiarrhythmic properties is nonselective and used for rate control?

Which antiarrhythmic is generally avoided in structural heart disease due to proarrhythmic risk?