TB & NTM Knowledge Challenge

Froggy Jumps

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Test your TB and NTM biology know-how.

Créé par

Quader Ahmed Jalili

India

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TB & NTM Knowledge Challenge


Froggy Jumps TB & NTM Knowledge ChallengeVersion en ligne Test your TB and NTM biology know-how. par Quader Ahmed Jalili 1 What does MDR-TB stand for? a Mycobacterium Drug-Rate TB b Millions Detected TB c Multidrug-Resistant TB 2 Which two drugs define MDR-TB when resisted? a Streptomycin and Rifampicin b Ethambutol and Pyrazinamide c Isoniazid and Rifampicin 3 XDR-TB is resistant to MDR plus which class? a Ribavirin b First-line isoniazid c Fluoroquinolones 4 Which program introduced DOTS-Plus for MDR-TB? a RNTCP b WHO MDR-TB Initiative c CDC TB Program 5 First-line TB drugs include HRZE. What does R stand for? a Rifampin (misspell) b Ribavirin c Rifampicin 6 What does DOTS stand for? a Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course b Direct TB Observation Therapy System c Daily Observed TB Scheme 7 Universal-Drug Susceptibility Testing (U-DST) in India begins with testing for which drug? a Rifampicin b Ethambutol c Isoniazid 8 Line probe assay (LPA) detects resistance to which drugs? a Only rifampicin b First and second-line ATDs c Only ethambutol 9 GeneXpert primarily detects resistance to which drug? a Ethambutol b Rifampicin c Isoniazid 10 What is the primary mechanism M. tuberculosis uses to survive inside macrophages? a Prevents phagocytosis b Inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion c Remains extracellular 11 BCG vaccine primarily protects children against which TB outcomes? a Meningitis and disseminated TB b Lung TB only c Miliary TB only 12 Runyon’s classification is for which group of organisms? a Fungi causing TB-like disease b Nontuberculous Mycobacteria (NTM) c M. tuberculosis only 13 Which NTMs are rapid growers? a M. fortuitum and M. chelonae b M. kansasii and M. avium c M. tuberculosis and M. leprae 14 Which NTMs are photochromogens? a M. scrofulaceum and M. gordonae b M. avium and M. intracellulare c M. marinum and M. kansasii 15 Which sample is typical for pulmonary TB diagnosis? a Blood b Sputum c CSF 16 Which culture medium is classic for TB culture? a Mueller-Hinton b Löwenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium c Blood agar 17 M. tuberculosis cell wall is rich in which acid facilitating acid-fastness? a Peptidoglycan only b Lipopolysaccharides c Mycolic acids 18 Which TB drug is a diarylquinoline used for MDR/XDR-TB? a Bedaquiline b Rifampicin c Isoniazid 19 Delamanid acts by inhibiting synthesis of what? a RNA polymerase b DNA polymerase c Mycolic acids 20 Which organism is commonly linked to swimming pool granuloma? a M. tuberculosis b M. marinum c M. kansasii 21 TB transmission occurs primarily via what route? a Waterborne b Airborne droplets c Vertical transmission 22 Which body site is the most common extrapulmonary TB site? a Skeletal muscle b Brain c Lymph nodes 23 Gaining TB resistance often results from what treatment issue? a Overdose b Vaccination failure c Poor adherence 24 What does MPT64 negativity help differentiate? a Active vs latent TB b Bacterial vs viral c M. tuberculosis from NTM 25 What is the main target of CBNAAT (GeneXpert) in rifampicin resistance? a RpoB gene b embB gene c katG gene 26 Which phase aims to rapidly kill bacilli in TB treatment? a Continuation phase b Intensive phase c Maintenance phase 27 What is the standard DS-TB six-month regimen shorthand? a HRZE then HRE b HRZE only c INH-RIF-PZA-ETH 28 Which drug is NOT a first-line anti-TB drug? a Rifampicin b Isoniazid c Ciprofloxacin 29 Which test helps diagnose latent TB infection? a Gram stain b Culture only c Tuberculin skin test (Mantoux) 30 Which drug class is used for MAC NTMs treatment? a Macrolide-containing regimens b Aminoglycosides alone c Beta-lactams alone 31 What is the major limitation of NTM therapy? a NTMs respond to all TB drugs b NTMs are often resistant to many TB drugs c NTMs cause no disease 32 What does DOTS-Plus primarily address? a HIV TB coinfection b Latent TB only c MDR-TB diagnosis and treatment 33 Which TB diagnostic method yields results <2 hours for resistance? a Line probe assay (LPA) or GeneXpert (CBNAAT) b MGIT only c Proportion method only 34 What is scotochromogen Runyon group associated with? a Photochromogens b NTM that pigment in light c Nonchromogenic TB 35 Which NTMs commonly cause HIV-associated infections? a M. abscessus b MAC (M. avium-intracellulare) c M. fortuitum 36 Which vaccine strain is used in India for BCG? a Danish 1331 b Calmette 1919 c Pasteur 1173 37 Which diagnostic marker helps differentiate M. tuberculosis from NTMs? a MPT64 antigen b IS6110 only c Gram stain positivity 38 What is the safety concern with delamanid? a Renal failure b Severe liver toxicity c Prolonged QT interval risk 39 M. tuberculosis cell wall reduces entry of many antibiotics due to? a Mycolic acids b Capsule c Thin peptidoglycan 40 What is a core goal of TB treatment regimens? a Prevent drug resistance b Avoid sputum monitoring c Shorten cure time to 1 month 41 Which phase of TB treatment ends with relapse prevention? a Maintenance phase b Intensive phase c Continuation phase 42 Which organism is commonly linked to leprae? (context: TB/NTM chapter) a M. kansasii b Mycobacterium leprae c M. tuberculosis 43 Which diagnostic method detects viable vs nonviable organisms? a Molecular methods cannot differentiate viability (context) b Ziehl-Neelsen stain c MGIT culture 44 Which TB drug is a rifamycin? a Rifampicin b Ethambutol c Pyrazinamide 45 Which NTMs group includes M. kansasii and M. marinum? a Nonphotochromogens b Scotochromogens c Photochromogens 46 M. tuberculosis transmission is enhanced by what condition? a Cold climate only b Overcrowding and poor ventilation c High altitude only 47 What is the primary role of LAM in TB? a Directly kills bacteria b Facilitates survival in macrophages c Stimulates eosinophils 48 Which TB form is most common: PTB or EPTB? a Extrapulmonary TB (EPTB) b Miliary TB only c Pulmonary TB (PTB) 49 Which phase monitoring uses sputum smear end of each phase? a Post-treatment only b Initial enrollment c Treatment follow-up 50 Which test is used for latent TB infection? a Tuberculin skin test or IGRA b Culture only c Gram stain 51 What is a common side effect consideration with Bedaquiline? a QT prolongation risk b Hyperkalemia c Nephrotoxicity only 52 Which factor worsens MDR-TB outcomes? a Young age only b Delayed diagnosis c Early treatment 53 What is the primary aim of TB chemoprophylaxis? a Replace vaccination b Prevent active TB in high-risk groups c Treat everyone with antibiotics 54 Which organism causes Buruli ulcer in NTMs section? a M. fortuitum b M. ulcerans c M. kansasii 55 Which molecule in TB immunity drives macrophage activation? a IL-4 b TNF-α only c IFN-γ 56 M. tuberculosis complex includes M. bovis and which others? a M. kansasii b M. leprae c M. tuberculosis 57 Drug susceptibility testing phenotypic method MGIT measures? a DNA sequencing b Antibody production c Growth in drug-containing tubes 58 What characterizes acid-fast bacteria like TB? a Gram-positive only b Spore-forming c Resistance to decolorization by acids 59 Which drug class is used for MAC infections? a Quinolones alone b Polymyxins c Macrolides 60 Which vaccine-related topic is covered in the slides? a TB vaccine allergy b Bacilli vaccine only c BCG vaccine and indications 61 Which test can identify rifampicin resistance quickly? a ACID-fast stain b Blood culture c GeneXpert 62 Which organism is linked to a typical gluteal abscess TB scenario? a M. leprae b M. tuberculosis c Mycobacterium fortuitum (contextual) 63 Which element is essential to DOTS success? a Monotherapy b High-dose IV therapy c Patient adherence and supervision 64 What is the main feature of NTM culture on LJ medium? a No growth b Pigment production for differentiation c Only rapid growth 65 Which drug is not typically used in DS-TB regimen? a Ciprofloxacin (as mainstay first-line) b Isoniazid c Rifampicin 66 Which TB diagnostic algorithm uses sputum and imaging? a Vaccine-only protocol b NTM-only protocol c Pulmonary TB diagnostic algorithm

TB & NTM Knowledge Challenge

Froggy Jumps

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Froggy Jumps

TB & NTM Knowledge ChallengeVersion en ligne

par Quader Ahmed Jalili

What does MDR-TB stand for?

Which two drugs define MDR-TB when resisted?

XDR-TB is resistant to MDR plus which class?

Which program introduced DOTS-Plus for MDR-TB?

First-line TB drugs include HRZE. What does R stand for?

What does DOTS stand for?

Universal-Drug Susceptibility Testing (U-DST) in India begins with testing for which drug?

Line probe assay (LPA) detects resistance to which drugs?

GeneXpert primarily detects resistance to which drug?

What is the primary mechanism M. tuberculosis uses to survive inside macrophages?

BCG vaccine primarily protects children against which TB outcomes?

Runyon’s classification is for which group of organisms?

Which NTMs are rapid growers?

Which NTMs are photochromogens?

Which sample is typical for pulmonary TB diagnosis?

Which culture medium is classic for TB culture?

M. tuberculosis cell wall is rich in which acid facilitating acid-fastness?

Which TB drug is a diarylquinoline used for MDR/XDR-TB?

Delamanid acts by inhibiting synthesis of what?

Which organism is commonly linked to swimming pool granuloma?

TB transmission occurs primarily via what route?

Which body site is the most common extrapulmonary TB site?

Gaining TB resistance often results from what treatment issue?

What does MPT64 negativity help differentiate?

What is the main target of CBNAAT (GeneXpert) in rifampicin resistance?

Which phase aims to rapidly kill bacilli in TB treatment?

What is the standard DS-TB six-month regimen shorthand?

Which drug is NOT a first-line anti-TB drug?

Which test helps diagnose latent TB infection?

Which drug class is used for MAC NTMs treatment?

What is the major limitation of NTM therapy?

What does DOTS-Plus primarily address?

Which TB diagnostic method yields results <2 hours for resistance?

What is scotochromogen Runyon group associated with?

Which NTMs commonly cause HIV-associated infections?

Which vaccine strain is used in India for BCG?

Which diagnostic marker helps differentiate M. tuberculosis from NTMs?

What is the safety concern with delamanid?

M. tuberculosis cell wall reduces entry of many antibiotics due to?

What is a core goal of TB treatment regimens?

Which phase of TB treatment ends with relapse prevention?

Which organism is commonly linked to leprae? (context: TB/NTM chapter)

Which diagnostic method detects viable vs nonviable organisms?

Which TB drug is a rifamycin?

Which NTMs group includes M. kansasii and M. marinum?

M. tuberculosis transmission is enhanced by what condition?

What is the primary role of LAM in TB?

Which TB form is most common: PTB or EPTB?

Which phase monitoring uses sputum smear end of each phase?

Which test is used for latent TB infection?

What is a common side effect consideration with Bedaquiline?

Which factor worsens MDR-TB outcomes?

What is the primary aim of TB chemoprophylaxis?

Which organism causes Buruli ulcer in NTMs section?

Which molecule in TB immunity drives macrophage activation?

M. tuberculosis complex includes M. bovis and which others?

Drug susceptibility testing phenotypic method MGIT measures?

What characterizes acid-fast bacteria like TB?

Which drug class is used for MAC infections?

Which vaccine-related topic is covered in the slides?

Which test can identify rifampicin resistance quickly?