Clinical Principles, Testing, and Procedures Practice Questions

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Please review the below questions surrounding clinical principles!

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Adrienne

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Clinical Principles, Testing, and Procedures Practice Questions


Clinical Principles, Testing, and Procedures Practice QuestionsVersion en ligne Please review the below questions surrounding clinical principles! par Adrienne 1 One of the most important procedures in any eye exam is: a Filling out insurance forms b Taking case history c Determining the dominant eye d Measuring interpupillary distance 2 What is the next step to take when recording vision on a patient who cannot see 20/400? a Walk the patient closer to the chart b Count fingers c Hand motion d Record vision as worse than 20/400 3 The most important part of the ocular emergency examination is: a Determining the medical insurance b Entering the patient data into the computer c Briefing other staff members on the situation d Case history 4 The basic premise of vision therapy is that: a The eyes "feed" the brain b The brain "feeds" the eyes c The eyes "feed" the body d The brain collects information from the body 5 When performing cover-uncover test, you notice that a patients' right eye moves in when the left eye is occluded, the patient has a: a Right exotropia b Left esotropia c Right exophoria d Left esophoria 6 A pseudophakic patent has had: a Cataract surgery b Glaucoma surgery c No intraocular lens implant d Retinal surgery 7 Pursuits are eye movements of what kind? a From one target to another b As they follow a moving target c After the occluder has been removed d Picking up fixation 8 Management of a patient with symptoms of flashes of light and floaters must include: a Keratometry b Dilated fundus exam c Blood pressure measurement d X-ray 9 Keratometry is the measure of: a The anterior segment angle b Corneal curvature c Corneal width d Lens curvature 10 ________is the most common condition in which Amsler Grid testing should be performed. a Glaucoma b Corneal ulcer c Macular degeneration d Diabetic retinopathy 11 If in doubt as to whether a patient requires an emergency appointment, the paraoptometric should: a Schedule the appointment anyway b Consult with the doctor c Tell the patient to call back later d Tell the patient to wait and see if the symptoms go away 12 The normal blink rate per minute is: a 5-6 times b 6-7 times c 8-10 times d 10-15 times 13 The number of rescue breaths per 30 chest compressions is: a 3 b 1 c 4 d 2 14 A tonometer that needs to be used with corneal anesthetic and fluorescein is: a Goldmann tonometer b Non-contact tonometer c Tono-pen d Schiötz tonometer 15 A right tropia is evident when: a The left eye moves when the right eye is covered b The right eye moves when the left eye is covered c The left eye moves when the left eye is covered d The right eye moves when the right eye is covered 16 When testing a patients EOMs, you should ask the patient if they have any (select all that apply) Choose one or more answers a Pain b Blurriness c Diplopia d Glare 17 Treatment once a foreign body has been removed includes: a Antibiotics b Steroids c Artificial tears d Fluress 18 While a paraoptometric is taking visual acuities, a patient is able to read all of the 20/25 line and only two letters on the 20/20 line. How could this be best recorded? a 20/25 +2 b 20/20 +2 c 20/25 + d 20/20 + 19 When viewed at a specific distance, the letters of each line on a standard visual acuity chart subtend at an angle of: a 5 minutes of arc b 15 mm c 7 minutes of arc d 20 feet 20 The refraction of a patient with a probable prescription of stronger than +20.00 will probably best be done using the: a phoropter b refractor c trial frame and lenses d autorefractor 21 During stereoacuity testing, the stereo target should be at ____centimeters with the lamp directed at the target. a 40 b 16 c 20 d 30 22 Color vision is usually evaluated at what distance? a 30 inches b 20 inches c 16 inches d 75 inches 23 A retinoscope would most likely be used to: a Evaluate the refractive error of a non-responsive patient b Evaluate the macula c Evaluate the pupillary responses d Evaluate the crystalline lens 24 The first step of CPR is a Check for pulse b Provide rescue breaths c Start compressions d Call 911 25 Which test is commonly used to evaluate pursuits? a Holmgren Wool test b Cover test c Two target test d Broad H test 26 How long should the tear film remain uniform over the cornea after a normal blink? a 5-10 seconds b 10-15 seconds c 15-20 seconds d 20-25 seconds 27 Low vision patients are defined as having which of the following? a 20/80 or worse uncorrected vision b 20/200 or worse best corrected vision c 20/400 or worse best corrected vision d 20/200 or worse uncorrected vision 28 Convergence is: a The act of the eyes turning inward b The act of the eyes turning outward c The act of the eyes focusing d The act of the eyes seeing double 29 Metamorphopsia is measured with which of the following? a Snellen chart b Color test c Millimeter ruler d Amsler grid 30 While recording case history, the 'O' in FOLDAR stands for: a Occupation b Origin c How Often? d Onset 31 The second 'R' in PERRL stands for: a Round b Responsive c Rapid d Relative 32 The cap color of a glaucoma drop with a prostaglandin analog is: a Yellow b White c Red d Turquoise 33 An automated external defibrillator should be used a Before CPOR b After CPR c When water is present d While touching the patient 34 The blood pressure cuff should cover this circumference of a patient's upper arm: a 50% b 70% c 80% d 90% 35 Which of the following instruments is used to evaluate a cataract? a Indirect ophthalmoscope b Direct ophthalmoscope c Retinoscope d Biomicroscope 36 The name of the test that determines a patients' depth perception is: a Pursuits b Saccades c Motor free visual perception test d Stereopsis 37 During the alternating cover test, if the eye moves out to pick up fixation after it is uncovered, the eye is: a Exophoric b Esophoric c Hypophoric d Hyperphoric 38 The purpose of evaluating the near point of accommodation is: a To check the ability of the eyes to focus at near b To check the ability of the eyes to focus at a distance c To measure the ability of the eyes to work together d To measure the ability of the eyes to work individually 39 The expected finding for near point of convergence is a 5 inches/7inches b 4 centimeters/8 centimeters c 4 inches/8 inches d 5 centimeters/7 centimeters 40 The diagnostic test known as _____measures the thickness of the cornea. a Tomography b Pachymetry c Topography d Keratometry 41 Visual field testing is commonly used to monitor: a Macular degeneration b Diabetic retinopathy c Retinal detachment d Glaucoma

Clinical Principles, Testing, and Procedures Practice Questions

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Clinical Principles, Testing, and Procedures Practice QuestionsVersion en ligne

par Adrienne

One of the most important procedures in any eye exam is:

What is the next step to take when recording vision on a patient who cannot see 20/400?

The most important part of the ocular emergency examination is:

The basic premise of vision therapy is that:

When performing cover-uncover test, you notice that a patients' right eye moves in when the left eye is occluded, the patient has a:

A pseudophakic patent has had:

Pursuits are eye movements of what kind?

Management of a patient with symptoms of flashes of light and floaters must include:

Keratometry is the measure of:

________is the most common condition in which Amsler Grid testing should be performed.

If in doubt as to whether a patient requires an emergency appointment, the paraoptometric should:

The normal blink rate per minute is:

The number of rescue breaths per 30 chest compressions is:

A tonometer that needs to be used with corneal anesthetic and fluorescein is:

A right tropia is evident when:

When testing a patients EOMs, you should ask the patient if they have any (select all that apply)

Treatment once a foreign body has been removed includes:

While a paraoptometric is taking visual acuities, a patient is able to read all of the 20/25 line and only two letters on the 20/20 line. How could this be best recorded?

When viewed at a specific distance, the letters of each line on a standard visual acuity chart subtend at an angle of:

The refraction of a patient with a probable prescription of stronger than +20.00 will probably best be done using the:

During stereoacuity testing, the stereo target should be at ____centimeters with the lamp directed at the target.

Color vision is usually evaluated at what distance?

A retinoscope would most likely be used to:

The first step of CPR is

Which test is commonly used to evaluate pursuits?

How long should the tear film remain uniform over the cornea after a normal blink?

Low vision patients are defined as having which of the following?

Convergence is:

Metamorphopsia is measured with which of the following?

While recording case history, the 'O' in FOLDAR stands for:

The second 'R' in PERRL stands for:

The cap color of a glaucoma drop with a prostaglandin analog is:

An automated external defibrillator should be used

The blood pressure cuff should cover this circumference of a patient's upper arm:

Which of the following instruments is used to evaluate a cataract?

The name of the test that determines a patients' depth perception is:

During the alternating cover test, if the eye moves out to pick up fixation after it is uncovered, the eye is:

The purpose of evaluating the near point of accommodation is:

The expected finding for near point of convergence is

The diagnostic test known as _____measures the thickness of the cornea.

Visual field testing is commonly used to monitor: