Microbiology Essentials Challenge

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Test key microbiology concepts quickly.

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Microbiology Essentials Challenge


Froggy Jumps Microbiology Essentials ChallengeVersion en ligne Test key microbiology concepts quickly. par Ava Light 1 What best defines a microbiome? a A culture grown on a plate b A single species of bacteria in a niche c All microorganisms in a host and their genomes plus interactions 2 What is a microbial colony? a A liquid culture suspension b A visible cluster from a single progenitor on solid media c A mixed culture of many organisms 3 Binomial nomenclature formatting rules? a Names not italicized b Genus capitalized, species lowercase, italicized c Both genus and species capitalized 4 Domain of Saccharomyces cerevisiae? a Archaea b Bacteria c Eukarya 5 What is a biofilm? a A liquid suspension culture b Free-floating single cells c A surface-attached microbial community in an EPS matrix 6 Why are biofilms clinically important? a They dissolve medical implants b They cause chronic infections and device failures c They always sterilize surfaces 7 What is a recombinant organism? a An organism with DNA from different sources b An organism evolved naturally only c A purely synthetic chemical organism 8 Chemotherapy in microbiology targets? a Laboratory disinfection of surfaces b Non-biological cold storage c Chemical agents to treat infection in a living host 9 Broad-spectrum antimicrobials... a Are always preferred to spare microbes b Only target a single species c Act against many taxa and disrupt microbiome 10 Narrow-spectrum antimicrobials... a Target limited taxa to spare commensals b Act on all organisms equally c Always cause zero resistance 11 Goal of antimicrobial therapy is? a Selective toxicity to harm pathogen, not host b Harm host more than pathogen c Eliminate all microbes completely 12 Freshwater to seawater: which is the osmotic effect? a Seawater is hypertonic; water exits cells b Water enters freshwater cells c Freshwater is hypertonic to seawater 13 Endocytosis type for engulfing whole cells? a Phagocytosis b Exocytosis c Pinocytosis 14 Which microbes are likely in body tissues? a Psychrophiles and obligate aerobes only b Thermophiles exclusively c Mesophiles and facultative anaerobes 15 Where is the bacterial electron transport system? a Nucleus b Cytoplasm only c Plasma membrane 16 Which growth phase suits penicillin best? a Stationary phase b Log (exponential) phase c Death phase 17 Gram stain: purple cocci in chains hints at? a Gram-positive cocci in chains (Streptococcus/Enterococcus) b Gram-negative rods c Gram-positive cocci in clusters 18 Streptococcus vs Staphylococcus: key difference? a Color of colonies b Arrangement; catalase test differentiates c Oxygen requirement only 19 IMViC tests identify which group? a Fungi b Gram-negative enteric bacteria c Gram-positive cocci 20 MacConkey agar distinguishes what? a Lactose fermenters vs non-fermenters b Gram-positive growth only c Spores formation 21 What does EMB agar indicate with a metallic sheen? a Protein hydrolysis only b No fermentation c Strong lactose fermentation (e.g., E. coli) 22 Which test shows catalase presence? a Bubble formation with H2O2 b No reaction in Gram stain c Red color change on plate 23 What indole test detects a tryptophanase b Mixed acid fermentation c alkaline growth 24 What does IVP test detect a tryptophanase b acetoin, butanediol c Citrate permease, alkaline growth 25 What does a citrate test detect a Tryptophonase b citrate permease, alkaline growth c acetoin, butanediol 26 What does a pink/red MAC plate mean a LF b LNF; growth suppressed for most gram+ c 27 What does a colorless/tan MAC plate mean a LNF; growth suppressed for most gram+ b LF c 28 Similarity with aerobic, anaerobic, and fermentation a Same election acceptor b pathway set c Begin with glycolysis 29 What is the conjugation process for horizontal gene transfer a direct transfer of DNA (plasmid) from a donor to a recipient via a pilus and physical contact. b bacteriophage(virus)infect a bacteria,injects its DNA, uses the host’s machinery to make new viruses c uptake of free, naked DNA from environment by a competent bacterial cell, leads to a genetic change. 30 What is the transduction process for horizontal gene transfer a direct transfer of DNA (plasmid) from a donor to a recipient via a pilus and physical contact. b bacteriophage(virus)infect a bacteria,injects its DNA, uses the host’s machinery to make new viruses c uptake of free, naked DNA from environment by a competent bacterial cell, leads to a genetic change. 31 What is the transformation process for horizontal gene transfer a direct transfer of DNA (plasmid) from a donor to a recipient via a pilus and physical contact. b bacteriophage(virus)infect a bacteria,injects its DNA, uses the host’s machinery to make new viruses c uptake of free, naked DNA from environment by a competent bacterial cell, leads to a genetic change. 32 Heliobacter pylori survives stomach acidity, why a strong enough b urease converts urea to ammonia which raises the ph protecting the bacteria c Urease lowers acidity of stomach acid, protecting the bacteria 33 Cranberry juice reduces microbe attachment in UTIs; name the involved structure a Pili with adhesins bind uroepithelial receptors; cranberry proanthocyanidins impair adhesion. b Quorum sensing turns off, disintegrates biofilm c destroys all bacterias 34 What is the role of a plasmid in molecular cloning a circular DNA vector that carries an origin of replication and a cloning site to accept inserts. b It breaks down the host cell’s DNA during replication. c It prevents antibiotic resistance from spreading 35 Why include an antibiotic resistance gene in a plasmid? a To identify cells that have successfully taken up the plasmid during transformation. b To stop all bacterial growth after transformation. c To weaken bacterial cell walls for DNA uptak 36 What is a selective medium? a Agar containing nutrients/antibiotics allowing only certain bacteria (those with a plasmid) to grow b A nutrient-free environment for testing bacterial starvation. c A liquid broth used for viral replication 37 What is the function of rRNA? a Combines with proteins to form ribosomes; catalytic core of ribosome b Transfers amino acids to ribosomes during translation c Repairs damaged DNA strands in the nucleuS 38 What is the function of tRNA a Adaptor with anticodon that brings specific amino acids b Synthesizes ribosomal subunits during protein production c Attaches mRNA to ribosomes for peptide bonding 39 What enzyme is used in PCR and why a Taq polymerase: withstands high temperatures during repeated DNA denaturation b Ligase: connects Okazaki fragments during DNA replication c Primase: synthesizes RNA primers for replication initiation 40 What bacterial tool uses guide RNA with nuclease for editing? a CRISPR-Cas9: RNA directs Cas9 to cut DNA for editing b Restriction enzyme: cuts plasmid DNA at palindromic recognition sites c Polymerase enzyme: copies target DNA sequences during replication 41 What enzymes cut DNA at specific sequences in cloning a Restriction endonucleases: recognize palindromic DNA sites, create sticky or blunt ends b Ligases: seal nicks in DNA backbone after replicatioN c Polymerases: synthesize complementary DNA strands from RNA templates 42 What is the electron acceptor in fermentation a Organic molecules such as pyruvate or acetaldehyde b Oxygen serving as the final acceptor c Nitrate or sulfate ions used in respiration 43 Why do some bacteria grow colorless/yellow on MacConkey and turn SIM black with a yellow top a Non-lactose fermenters, H₂S producers, indole negative organisms like Salmonella b Lactose fermenters producing acid and red colonies c Gram-positive bacteria unable to grow on MacConkey agar 44 What is the function of helicase a Unwinds the DNA helix at the replication fork b Adds RNA primers to single DNA strands c Relieves tension caused by DNA supercoiling 45 What is the function of DNA polymerase III a Removes RNA primers and seals fragments b Adds nucleotides 5′→3′ and proofreads to reduce errors c Unwinds double-stranded DNA during replication 46 What is the function of DNA polymerase I a Synthesizes Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand b Removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA c Adds nucleotides continuously on the leading strand 47 What is the function of gyrase (topoisomerase II) a Adds RNA primers to initiate synthesis b Joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand c Relieves DNA supercoiling ahead of the replication fork 48 What does a fungistatic drug do, and when is it used a Kills fungal cells directly in all infections b Inhibits fungal growth; used when host immunity can clear infection c Prevents viral replication during systemic infections 49 What does a fungicidal drug do, and when is it used a Kills fungi; used for severe or systemic fungal infections b Inhibits fungal growth without killing cells c Targets bacterial RNA polymerase during translation 50 What does a bacteriostatic drug do, and when is it use a Inhibits bacterial growth; used when bactericidal effect isn’t required b Kills bacteria rapidly regardless of immune function c Blocks bacterial protein translation permanently 51 What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration a Nitrate b Oxygen c pyruvate 52 What is the final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration a Inorganic molecules like nitrate, sulfate, or carbon dioxide b Oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor c Organic acids produced during fermentation 53 What is the final electron acceptor in fermentation a Organic molecule, most commonly pyruvate b Oxygen molecule at the end of glycolysis c Inorganic ion such as nitrate 54 On EMB agar, what does a metallic green sheen indicate a Strong lactose fermenter producing much acid, typically E. coli b Non-lactose fermenter, neutral pH, colorless colonies c Weak acid producer forming pink mucoid colonieS 55 What does a positive TSIA H₂S result look like and mean a Blackening in the butt indicates H₂S gas production b Bright yellow slant indicates strong lactose fermentation c Red slant shows aerobic protein degradation 56 What does a positive methyl red test look like and mean a Yellow color = alkaline reaction, no acid produce b Red color after reagent = stable acid from mixed-acid fermentatioN c No color change = neutral pH maintained 57 What does a positive indole test look like and mean a Red ring on top after Kovac’s = tryptophanase produces indole b Yellow layer indicates indole negative c Black precipitate shows H₂S gas formed 58 What does a positive urease test look like and mean a Bright pink/magenta = urea hydrolyzed → NH₃ + CO₂, pH rises b Yellow color = acidic end product c Blue color = citrate metabolized 59 What does a positive catalase test look like and mean a Immediate bubbles with H₂O₂ = catalase enzyme present b Red color = indole produced c Cloudy broth = gas production 60 What does a positive DNase test look like and mean a Green zone = hydrogen sulfide forme b Clear halo on DNase agar = DNA hydrolyze c Blue streak = carbohydrate fermentatio 61 Define sterilization a Disrupts viruses but not bacteria b Reduces microbes to safe levels c Destroys all microbial life, including endospores 62 Define disinfection/sanitization a Disinfection kills or reduces pathogens on surfaces; sanitization lowers microbial load b Sterilization kills all microbial forms including spores c Antisepsis removes microbes from living tissu 63 Define antisepsis a Reduces or eliminates pathogens on living tissues; gentler than disinfectants b Destroys spores on medical instruments c Sanitizes utensils to public health standards

Microbiology Essentials Challenge

Froggy Jumps

À propos de cette activité

Créé par

Téléchargez la version pour jouer sur papier

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Microbiology Essentials ChallengeVersion en ligne

par Ava Light

What best defines a microbiome?

What is a microbial colony?

Binomial nomenclature formatting rules?

Domain of Saccharomyces cerevisiae?

What is a biofilm?

Why are biofilms clinically important?

What is a recombinant organism?

Chemotherapy in microbiology targets?

Broad-spectrum antimicrobials...

Narrow-spectrum antimicrobials...

Goal of antimicrobial therapy is?

Freshwater to seawater: which is the osmotic effect?

Endocytosis type for engulfing whole cells?

Which microbes are likely in body tissues?

Where is the bacterial electron transport system?

Which growth phase suits penicillin best?

Gram stain: purple cocci in chains hints at?

Streptococcus vs Staphylococcus: key difference?

IMViC tests identify which group?

MacConkey agar distinguishes what?

What does EMB agar indicate with a metallic sheen?

Which test shows catalase presence?

What indole test detects

What does IVP test detect

What does a citrate test detect

What does a pink/red MAC plate mean

What does a colorless/tan MAC plate mean

Similarity with aerobic, anaerobic, and fermentation

What is the conjugation process for horizontal gene transfer

What is the transduction process for horizontal gene transfer

What is the transformation process for horizontal gene transfer

Heliobacter pylori survives stomach acidity, why

Cranberry juice reduces microbe attachment in UTIs; name the involved structure

What is the role of a plasmid in molecular cloning

Why include an antibiotic resistance gene in a plasmid?

What is a selective medium?

What is the function of rRNA?

What is the function of tRNA

What enzyme is used in PCR and why

What bacterial tool uses guide RNA with nuclease for editing?

What enzymes cut DNA at specific sequences in cloning

What is the electron acceptor in fermentation

Why do some bacteria grow colorless/yellow on MacConkey and turn SIM black with a yellow top

What is the function of helicase

What is the function of DNA polymerase III

What is the function of DNA polymerase I

What is the function of gyrase (topoisomerase II)

What does a fungistatic drug do, and when is it used

What does a fungicidal drug do, and when is it used

What does a bacteriostatic drug do, and when is it use

What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration

What is the final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration

What is the final electron acceptor in fermentation

On EMB agar, what does a metallic green sheen indicate

What does a positive TSIA H₂S result look like and mean

What does a positive methyl red test look like and mean

What does a positive indole test look like and mean

What does a positive urease test look like and mean

What does a positive catalase test look like and mean

What does a positive DNase test look like and mean

Define sterilization