Test: 739 Enhance and Maintain Nails (beauty)


739 Enhance and Maintain NailsVersion en ligne ITEC Level 3 Nail Services par Gulnaz Rafiq 1 Q1. Why does onychomycosis contra-indicate nail enhancement treatments? a It is a viral infection b It is a fungal infection c It is a bacterial infection d It is a parasitic infection 2 Q2. Which of the following conditions is a bacterial infection? a Onychomadesis b Onycholysis c Paronychia d Pterygium 3 Q3. Why would a whitlow contraindicate the service? a Because it is a painful inflamed condition b Because it is an infectious condition c Because the condition might worsen d Because the condition might spread 4 Q4. What is the definition of onycholysis? a Nail separation from the nail bed b Split or brittle nails c Inflammation of the nail d Dry, brittle nails 5 Q5. Which of the following is a characteristic of eczema? a Elevated weals on the skin b Silvery scales c Red itchy rash d Pustules 6 Q6. When may onychorrhexis restrict a nail enhancement service? a When it is contagious b If the client suffers from the condition on a regular basis c If the client has the condition on two or more nails d When a split in the nail is below the free edge 7 Q7. Which of the following conditions may restrict the application of nail enhancements? a Psoriasis b Paronychia c Onychomycosis d Onychorrhexis 8 Q8. What is the name given to an inflammation of the nail? a Chilblains b Eponychia c Onychia d Koilonychia 9 Q9. What may be the result if a nail infection between the natural nail plate and the overlay is left untreated? a It will grow out with the natural growth of the nail b It will fade and disappear over time c It will destroy the nail plate d It will spread to the other nails 10 Q10. What is meant by an exothermic reaction? a A chemical reaction that causes product to harden b A chemical reaction that needs heat to occur c A chemical reaction that releases energy in the form of heat d A chemical reaction that occurs without a catalyst 11 Q11. What type of infection causes green discolouration between the nail plate and the overlay? a Bacteria b Fungus c Mould d Virus 12 Q12. Which of the following terms means a chemical reaction that releases energy in the form of heat? a Exothermic b Endothermic c Ectothermic d Epithermic 13 Q13. What may be the result if a nail infection between the natural nail plate and the overlay is left untreated? a Cuts and bruising to the cuticle and surrounding tissues b It will fade and disappear over time c Surrounding tissues become sensitive to pressure or itch d Anaphylactic shock: severe swelling & problems breathing 14 Q14. Which of the following is an ingredient in gel? a Methacrylate ester monomers b Polymethyl methacrylate c Ethyl cyanoancrylate d Dibenzoyl peroxide 15 Q15. What occurs during the polymerisation of semi-liquid gels? a The semi-liquid gels melt. b The semi-liquid gels turn into a solid c The semi-liquid gels soften. d The semi–liquid gels turn into semi-solids. 16 Q16. Which of the following products is used to improve the adhesion between the nail plate and artificial enhancement products? a Resin b Primer c Nail glue d Base coat 17 Q17. Which product is used to remove any sticky residue after curing? a Nail primer b Sterilising solution c Activator spray d Non-acetone enamel remover 18 Q18. Which of the following statements are true with regard to gel systems? a All gel systems air cure b All gels systems are applied in the same way c All gel systems are resistant to solvents and must be removed by buffing d The therapist must always follow the manufacturer’s instructions regarding application and removal 19 Q19. Which of the following systems requires a catalyst in the form of a liquid spray or brush on activator? a UV Gel system b Wrap system c Liquid and powder system d Sculpted acrylic system 20 Q20. Which of the following systems is generally considered to be the easiest of the overlay systems to master? a UV gel enhancements b Wrap enhancements c Liquid and powder sculpting d Liquid and powder overlays 21 Q21. When applying gel to each hand, why should the thumbs and fingers be treated separately? a To keep the digits level b To work in an orderly manner c To work neatly and efficiently d To prevent the fingers from sticking 22 Q22. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the application of a primer or bonding agent? a Apply primer liberally to all ten nails at the start of the treatment before the tips have been applied b Apply primer sparingly to the natural nail only after the tips have been applied and blended just before the overlay c Apply primer over both the natural nail and the tip after blending but before the overlay d Apply primer after tip application but before blending and reapply once blending has been completed 23 Q23. What chemical is used in primer to anchor some products to the natural nail? a Ethyl acetate b Cyanoacrylic acid c Methacrylic acid d Butyl acetate 24 Q24. During enhancement removal, what can be the effect of solvents to the nail plate and surrounding skin? a It can over-hydrate the nail and surrounding skin b It can thin the nail plate c It can over-dehydrate the nail and surrounding skin d It can thicken the nail plate 25 Q25. How much solvent should be placed in a soak-off bowl for removal? a 2-3cms b 5-6cms c Enough to cover the client's fingers d Enough to cover the client's hands 26 Q26. What could cause the products to lift around the cuticle area? a Overuse of the product b Over-buffing c Insufficient use of sanitiser d Removal of loose tissue from the cuticle area 27 Q27. What could adhesive on the side of the nail wall cause? a The nail to break b Pterygium c The tip to lift d An unbalanced finish 28 Q28. Why should a free margin be left at the cuticles? a To prevent lifting b To create a narrower nail plate c To give a balanced look d To lengthen of the nails 29 Q29. What will happen if the therapist tries to fit a flatter tip on a client with a naturally deeper ‘C’ curve? a It will give the illusion of a continuation of the lower arch b It will help to create an illusion of an upper arch that is not there naturally c The tip will want to curl back up causing problems at the side walls d The tip will want to spring back up and regain its natural shape 30 Q30. Which type of nail tips are commonly used for nail enhancements? a HDPE plastic b Glass fibre c Polypropylene d ABS plastic 31 Q31. Which of the following is an advantage to using a pre blended tip? a There is a larger contact area for the glue so the overlay is stronger b Less product is used for the overlay so the overlay is more flexible c There is a larger contact area for the product so the overlay is stronger d More product is used for the overlay so the overlay has more rigidity 32 Q32. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using unblended tips? a The contact area is smaller so the overlay is stronger b Unblended tips are quicker to apply and less adhesive is used c The finished nail will not look quite as clear and defined than a tip with a reduced contact area d Unblended tips need less buffing and reduce the risk of damage to the clients natural nail plate 33 Q33. Which type of sculpting forms are not used when applying gel nail systems? a Plastic forms b Metals forms c Teflon-coated forms d Paper forms 34 Q34. Why should metal sculpting forms be avoided when using gel nail systems? a Because they can melt. b Because they are not pliable enough. c Because they are difficult to secure. d Because they can become hot. 35 Q35. At what angle is a tip applied to the natural nail? a 30 degree angle b 90 degree angle c 60 degree angle d 45 degree angle 36 Q36. Which of the following would be the most suitable system to repair a break in the free edge of a natural nail? a Liquid and powder overlay b Nail wrap c Tip and UV gel overlay d Nail enamel 37 Q37. If a client presents with short flaky nails and wanted to grow them, which of the following would be the most appropriate enhancement procedures to suggest? a Apply a full set of tips with an acrylic overlay b Apply a full set of liquid and powder sculpted nails c Apply a full set of natural overlays with either UV gel or wraps d Apply a full set of full tips with nail adhesive 38 Q38. If a client had a split in the free edge of her natural nail, which of the following would be the most appropriate to repair it until it grows out? a Apply a liquid and powder overlay b Apply a UV gel overlay c Apply a wrap system overlay d Apply a tip and overlay 39 Q39. Which of the following statements is the correct way to treat minor lifting? a Nip the excess away with cuticle nippers b Blend the lifted area into the natural nail with acetone c Apply nail glue under the lifting with an orange stick and press down d Buff away carefully without over-buffing the nail plate 40 Q40. Why should nippers not be used to clip away lifting gel? a Because they creates an uneven finish. b Because they are abrasive to the nail. c Because they can cause bruising. d Because they may thin the nail plate. 41 Q41. Which of the following actions might have to be performed if a client kept complaining of breaking her enhancements? a Reduce the length and reinforce the stress area b Increase the length and reduce the stress area c Increase the length and reinforce the stress area d Reduce the length and reduce the stress area 42 Q42. Which of the following aftercare statements is true for gel nails? a Always use acetone-based polish remover b Top coat is not necessary for gel nails c Before cleaning with bleach ensure cuticle cream and hand lotion have been applied d Ask the client to ring the salon if any nails are broken to allow the technician extra time 43 Q43. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to maintenance treatments and UV gel systems a It is important for the technician to assess the nails and advise the client to revisit for maintenance when the colour needs changing b UV gel enhancements will need more regular maintenance treatments because they are a weaker system c UV gel enhancements will need less maintenance treatments because they are a stronger system d It is important for the technician to assess the nails and advise the client to revisit for maintenance as the nail grows and if there are signs of lifting 44 Q44. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to removing UV gel enhancements? a UV gel systems can only be removed using a remover from the manufacturer b Most UV gel systems are affected by acetone so the only way to remove them is by soaking them off c UV gel systems can only be removed using a remover from the manufacturer d UV gel systems can be removed easily with any normal nail varnish remover as long as it is acetone-based 45 Q45. How often should a client return for a maintenance appointment? a Every week b Every 2 - 3 weeks c Every 4 weeks d Every 5 - 6 weeks

1

Q1. Why does onychomycosis contra-indicate nail enhancement treatments?

a

It is a viral infection

b

It is a fungal infection

c

It is a bacterial infection

d

It is a parasitic infection

2

Q2. Which of the following conditions is a bacterial infection?

a

Onychomadesis

b

Onycholysis

c

Paronychia

d

Pterygium

3

Q3. Why would a whitlow contraindicate the service?

a

Because it is a painful inflamed condition

b

Because it is an infectious condition

c

Because the condition might worsen

d

Because the condition might spread

4

Q4. What is the definition of onycholysis?

a

Nail separation from the nail bed

b

Split or brittle nails

c

Inflammation of the nail

d

Dry, brittle nails

5

Q5. Which of the following is a characteristic of eczema?

a

Elevated weals on the skin

b

Silvery scales

c

Red itchy rash

d

Pustules

6

Q6. When may onychorrhexis restrict a nail enhancement service?

a

When it is contagious

b

If the client suffers from the condition on a regular basis

c

If the client has the condition on two or more nails

d

When a split in the nail is below the free edge

7

Q7. Which of the following conditions may restrict the application of nail enhancements?

a

Psoriasis

b

Paronychia

c

Onychomycosis

d

Onychorrhexis

8

Q8. What is the name given to an inflammation of the nail?

a

Chilblains

b

Eponychia

c

Onychia

d

Koilonychia

9

Q9. What may be the result if a nail infection between the natural nail plate and the overlay is left untreated?

a

It will grow out with the natural growth of the nail

b

It will fade and disappear over time

c

It will destroy the nail plate

d

It will spread to the other nails

10

Q10. What is meant by an exothermic reaction?

a

A chemical reaction that causes product to harden

b

A chemical reaction that needs heat to occur

c

A chemical reaction that releases energy in the form of heat

d

A chemical reaction that occurs without a catalyst

11

Q11. What type of infection causes green discolouration between the nail plate and the overlay?

a

Bacteria

b

Fungus

c

Mould

d

Virus

12

Q12. Which of the following terms means a chemical reaction that releases energy in the form of heat?

a

Exothermic

b

Endothermic

c

Ectothermic

d

Epithermic

13

Q13. What may be the result if a nail infection between the natural nail plate and the overlay is left untreated?

a

Cuts and bruising to the cuticle and surrounding tissues

b

It will fade and disappear over time

c

Surrounding tissues become sensitive to pressure or itch

d

Anaphylactic shock: severe swelling & problems breathing

14

Q14. Which of the following is an ingredient in gel?

a

Methacrylate ester monomers

b

Polymethyl methacrylate

c

Ethyl cyanoancrylate

d

Dibenzoyl peroxide

15

Q15. What occurs during the polymerisation of semi-liquid gels?

a

The semi-liquid gels melt.

b

The semi-liquid gels turn into a solid

c

The semi-liquid gels soften.

d

The semi–liquid gels turn into semi-solids.

16

Q16. Which of the following products is used to improve the adhesion between the nail plate and artificial enhancement products?

a

Resin

b

Primer

c

Nail glue

d

Base coat

17

Q17. Which product is used to remove any sticky residue after curing?

a

Nail primer

b

Sterilising solution

c

Activator spray

d

Non-acetone enamel remover

18

Q18. Which of the following statements are true with regard to gel systems?

a

All gel systems air cure

b

All gels systems are applied in the same way

c

All gel systems are resistant to solvents and must be removed by buffing

d

The therapist must always follow the manufacturer’s instructions regarding application and removal

19

Q19. Which of the following systems requires a catalyst in the form of a liquid spray or brush on activator?

a

UV Gel system

b

Wrap system

c

Liquid and powder system

d

Sculpted acrylic system

20

Q20. Which of the following systems is generally considered to be the easiest of the overlay systems to master?

a

UV gel enhancements

b

Wrap enhancements

c

Liquid and powder sculpting

d

Liquid and powder overlays

21

Q21. When applying gel to each hand, why should the thumbs and fingers be treated separately?

a

To keep the digits level

b

To work in an orderly manner

c

To work neatly and efficiently

d

To prevent the fingers from sticking

22

Q22. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the application of a primer or bonding agent?

a

Apply primer liberally to all ten nails at the start of the treatment before the tips have been applied

b

Apply primer sparingly to the natural nail only after the tips have been applied and blended just before the overlay

c

Apply primer over both the natural nail and the tip after blending but before the overlay

d

Apply primer after tip application but before blending and reapply once blending has been completed

23

Q23. What chemical is used in primer to anchor some products to the natural nail?

a

Ethyl acetate

b

Cyanoacrylic acid

c

Methacrylic acid

d

Butyl acetate

24

Q24. During enhancement removal, what can be the effect of solvents to the nail plate and surrounding skin?

a

It can over-hydrate the nail and surrounding skin

b

It can thin the nail plate

c

It can over-dehydrate the nail and surrounding skin

d

It can thicken the nail plate

25

Q25. How much solvent should be placed in a soak-off bowl for removal?

a

2-3cms

b

5-6cms

c

Enough to cover the client's fingers

d

Enough to cover the client's hands

26

Q26. What could cause the products to lift around the cuticle area?

a

Overuse of the product

b

Over-buffing

c

Insufficient use of sanitiser

d

Removal of loose tissue from the cuticle area

27

Q27. What could adhesive on the side of the nail wall cause?

a

The nail to break

b

Pterygium

c

The tip to lift

d

An unbalanced finish

28

Q28. Why should a free margin be left at the cuticles?

a

To prevent lifting

b

To create a narrower nail plate

c

To give a balanced look

d

To lengthen of the nails

29

Q29. What will happen if the therapist tries to fit a flatter tip on a client with a naturally deeper ‘C’ curve?

a

It will give the illusion of a continuation of the lower arch

b

It will help to create an illusion of an upper arch that is not there naturally

c

The tip will want to curl back up causing problems at the side walls

d

The tip will want to spring back up and regain its natural shape

30

Q30. Which type of nail tips are commonly used for nail enhancements?

a

HDPE plastic

b

Glass fibre

c

Polypropylene

d

ABS plastic

31

Q31. Which of the following is an advantage to using a pre blended tip?

a

There is a larger contact area for the glue so the overlay is stronger

b

Less product is used for the overlay so the overlay is more flexible

c

There is a larger contact area for the product so the overlay is stronger

d

More product is used for the overlay so the overlay has more rigidity

32

Q32. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using unblended tips?

a

The contact area is smaller so the overlay is stronger

b

Unblended tips are quicker to apply and less adhesive is used

c

The finished nail will not look quite as clear and defined than a tip with a reduced contact area

d

Unblended tips need less buffing and reduce the risk of damage to the clients natural nail plate

33

Q33. Which type of sculpting forms are not used when applying gel nail systems?

a

Plastic forms

b

Metals forms

c

Teflon-coated forms

d

Paper forms

34

Q34. Why should metal sculpting forms be avoided when using gel nail systems?

a

Because they can melt.

b

Because they are not pliable enough.

c

Because they are difficult to secure.

d

Because they can become hot.

35

Q35. At what angle is a tip applied to the natural nail?

a

30 degree angle

b

90 degree angle

c

60 degree angle

d

45 degree angle

36

Q36. Which of the following would be the most suitable system to repair a break in the free edge of a natural nail?

a

Liquid and powder overlay

b

Nail wrap

c

Tip and UV gel overlay

d

Nail enamel

37

Q37. If a client presents with short flaky nails and wanted to grow them, which of the following would be the most appropriate enhancement procedures to suggest?

a

Apply a full set of tips with an acrylic overlay

b

Apply a full set of liquid and powder sculpted nails

c

Apply a full set of natural overlays with either UV gel or wraps

d

Apply a full set of full tips with nail adhesive

38

Q38. If a client had a split in the free edge of her natural nail, which of the following would be the most appropriate to repair it until it grows out?

a

Apply a liquid and powder overlay

b

Apply a UV gel overlay

c

Apply a wrap system overlay

d

Apply a tip and overlay

39

Q39. Which of the following statements is the correct way to treat minor lifting?

a

Nip the excess away with cuticle nippers

b

Blend the lifted area into the natural nail with acetone

c

Apply nail glue under the lifting with an orange stick and press down

d

Buff away carefully without over-buffing the nail plate

40

Q40. Why should nippers not be used to clip away lifting gel?

a

Because they creates an uneven finish.

b

Because they are abrasive to the nail.

c

Because they can cause bruising.

d

Because they may thin the nail plate.

41

Q41. Which of the following actions might have to be performed if a client kept complaining of breaking her enhancements?

a

Reduce the length and reinforce the stress area

b

Increase the length and reduce the stress area

c

Increase the length and reinforce the stress area

d

Reduce the length and reduce the stress area

42

Q42. Which of the following aftercare statements is true for gel nails?

a

Always use acetone-based polish remover

b

Top coat is not necessary for gel nails

c

Before cleaning with bleach ensure cuticle cream and hand lotion have been applied

d

Ask the client to ring the salon if any nails are broken to allow the technician extra time

43

Q43. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to maintenance treatments and UV gel systems

a

It is important for the technician to assess the nails and advise the client to revisit for maintenance when the colour needs changing

b

UV gel enhancements will need more regular maintenance treatments because they are a weaker system

c

UV gel enhancements will need less maintenance treatments because they are a stronger system

d

It is important for the technician to assess the nails and advise the client to revisit for maintenance as the nail grows and if there are signs of lifting

44

Q44. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to removing UV gel enhancements?

a

UV gel systems can only be removed using a remover from the manufacturer

b

Most UV gel systems are affected by acetone so the only way to remove them is by soaking them off

c

UV gel systems can only be removed using a remover from the manufacturer

d

UV gel systems can be removed easily with any normal nail varnish remover as long as it is acetone-based

45

Q45. How often should a client return for a maintenance appointment?

a

Every week

b

Every 2 - 3 weeks

c

Every 4 weeks

d

Every 5 - 6 weeks

739 Enhance and Maintain Nails

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