Foundations of Veterinary Pharmacology QuizVersion en ligne Test key pharmacology concepts for vet techs. par Tearney 1 What is the first-pass effect in pharmacokinetics? a Drugs bypass the liver entirely b Oral drugs are metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation c Absorption occurs directly into the bloodstream d Kidneys filter the drug before it reaches the blood 2 Which route provides 100% bioavailability? a Oral b Intravenous (IV) c Subcutaneous (SQ) d Intramuscular (IM) 3 TI equals which ratio indicating safety of a drug? a ED90/LD10 b Therapeutic window c Bioavailability d LD50/ED50 4 Which organ is primarily responsible for drug excretion? a Lungs b Spleen c Liver d Kidneys 5 An agonist does what to a receptor? a Destroys a receptor b Blocks a receptor c Activates a receptor d Increases receptor degradation 6 Pharmacokinetics vs pharmacodynamics: what does PK study? a What the body does to the drug b What the drug does to the body c Dose vs concentration in the plasma d Drug interactions with other meds 7 Which pre-anesthetic class causes vasodilation via alpha-1 blockade? a Benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) b Phenothiazines (e.g., acepromazine) c Opioids (e.g., morphine) d Anticholinergics (e.g., atropine) 8 Which induction agent has no analgesia and can cause apnea? a Propofol b Ketamine c Etomidate d Alfaxalone 9 What CNS trait allows drugs to cross the blood-brain barrier easily? a High molecular weight b Strong plasma protein binding c Small, non-ionized, lipophilic d Hydrophilic and ionized 10 Which sign is a depth indicator of anesthesia? a Color of gums b Heart rate only c Jaw tone d Blood pressure alone 11 What does TI stand for in pharmacology? a Therapeutic Index b Therapy Intensity c Toxicity Index d Treatment Indicator 12 Which route provides 100% bioavailability? a Intravenous (IV) b Intramuscular (IM) c Subcutaneous (SQ) d Oral (PO) 13 Which organ mainly metabolizes drugs? a Lungs b Liver c Brain d Kidneys 14 What is the first-pass effect? a Liver metabolism reduces drug before systemic circulation b Kidneys excrete drugs unchanged c Lungs saturate drug absorption d Stomach acid enhances absorption 15 Which antidote reverses benzodiazepines? a Flumazenil b Naloxone c Atipamezole d Yohimbine 16 What is bioavailability? a Drug’s half-life in blood b Maximum effect of drug c Fraction of drug reaching systemic circulation d Volume of drug absorbed 17 Which route has the slowest onset? a Subcutaneous (SQ) b Intravenous (IV) c Oral (PO) d Intramuscular (IM) 18 Which drug class provides strong analgesia with respiratory depression risk? a Mu opioid agonists b Local anesthetics c NSAIDs d Benzodiazepines 19 Which induction agent is best for severe cardiac disease? a Propofol b Ketamine c Etomidate d Alfaxalone 20 Which drug reverses both dexmedetomidine and xylazine? a Naloxone b Atipamezole c Flumazenil d Yohimbine 21 What BP concern should you watch for with acepromazine and inhalants? a Hypertension with tachycardia b Hypertension c Hypotension d Tachycardia 22 Which parameter indicates effective oxygenation when SpO2 is above 95%? a Respiratory rate b ETCO2 c Heart rate d SpO2 23 What EtCO2 value is considered ideal during monitoring? a 35–45 mmHg b 10–20 mmHg c 50–60 mmHg d 20–30 mmHg 24 Which metric is used to assess ventilation efficiency? a EtCO2 b Jaw tone c SpO2 d Blood pressure 25 Which depth indicator helps assess analgesia and sedation level? a Jaw tone b Movement c Eye position d Reflexes 26 Which cue helps gauge anesthetic depth via the eyes? a Eye position b SpO2 c Heart rate d Jaw tone 27 Which is a key cardiovascular parameter to monitor during anesthesia? a Reflexes b SpO2 c Heart rate d Jaw tone 28 Which reflexes are checked to assess neurological status during anesthesia? a Jaw tone b Reflexes c SpO2 d EtCO2 29 Which parameter together with HR helps assess perfusion? a Blood pressure b SpO2 c Eye position d Jaw tone 30 What movement observation informs anesthetic depth and recovery? a Movement b SpO2 c EtCO2 d Eye position 31 What is the first step in the Pain Pathway? a Transmission b Modulation c Transduction d Perception 32 What occurs during Transmission? a Signal travels to the spinal cord and brain b Signal stops at the injury site c Signal bypasses the brain d Signal is amplified in muscles 33 What does Modulation do to the signal? a Only amplifies signals b Amplifies or suppresses the signal c Stops the signal entirely d Creates new signals 34 What is Perception in pain terms? a Automatic reflex of movement b Conscious awareness of pain c Modulation of signals d Transmission to spinal cord 35 Central Sensitization (Wind-Up) involves? a Immediate tissue healing b Decreased nerve activity c Repeated stimulation lowers pain threshold d Increased pain threshold 36 Nociceptive pain originates from? a Central processing error b Tissue injury c Psychological factors d Nervous system dysfunction 37 Neuropathic pain results from? a Normal aging b Nervous system dysfunction c Muscle strain d Tissue injury only 38 Adaptive pain is described as? a Unrelated to injury b Protective c Exaggerated and harmful d Pathologic 39 Maladaptive pain is best described as? a Mild and temporary b Pathologic and exaggerated c Only psychological d Protective and helpful 40 Which statement best defines wind-up? a Brain ignores repeated signals b Pain is sensed only at the site c Repeated stimulation lowers pain threshold d Pain decreases with repetition
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